If a statute uses only one mental-state term, which statement is true?

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Multiple Choice

If a statute uses only one mental-state term, which statement is true?

When a statute uses only one mental-state term, that term is assumed to apply to all elements of the offense that require a mental state. The reason is that the legislature did not specify different mental states for different parts of the crime, so the default is to extend that one term across the offense. However, this can be overridden if the statute clearly shows an intent to limit the term’s application to certain elements or if some elements do not require that mental state at all.

So the true statement is that the mental-state term applies to every element of the offense unless an intent to limit its application clearly appears.

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